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There are many teachings out there, about what
this word means, but what does the Bible say it means? To find out, I believe its important to go back to the original language
the Bible was written in, to unlock the truth, and separate that, from all else.
Lets look at this word in the New Testament.
The word "predestinate" is found only twice, and those verses are here:
- Romans 8:29 For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate
to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.
- Romans 8:30 Moreover whom he did predestinate, them
he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.
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In both of these verses, the Greek word there is "proorizo" (Strongs ref. 4309). This is a word that comes from
2 other words, put together. Those other 2 words are pro (before) and horizo (determine). Put together and used in this way,
the word means:
1) to predetermine, decide beforehand
2) in the NT of God decreeing from eternity
3) to foreordain, appoint beforehand
Do you remember when you were in school, and
you'd have an English test? Remember multiple choice questions where you'd have to fill in the blank with the most appropriate
definition, to cause the sentence to make sense? A lot of the time when I study, and come across a word or phrase I'm not
sure of, I find the original meaning of the word, and envision the verse or passage, to read that way. Here's an example:
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For whom he did foreknow, he also did ________________
to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.
- Predetermine: 1.a. foreordain, predestine b : to determine beforehand
2 : to impose a direction or
tendency on beforehand
- Foreordain: to dispose or appoint in advance
- decide ahead of time
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In this case, this one word, in the original
language, only means 1 thing, so any of the choices would be appropriate. Thats not always the case though. A lot of the time,
1 word can have multiple meanings, which might make it more difficult to get to the true meaning of the verse, unless we compare
Scripture with Scripture. In those cases where a word does have many meanings, its crucial to also look up comparative verses,
to gain insight from a broader doctrinal perspective.
We can do this same example with the other verse
where we find predestinate:
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Moreover whom he did _____________, them he also called:
and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.
- Predetermine:
1 a : foreordain,
predestine b : to determine beforehand 2 : to impose a direction or tendency
on beforehand
Foreordain: to dispose or appoint in advance
decide ahead of time |
When we read the verse this way, having a full,
clear understanding of what the word in question actually means, we find a more accurate understanding of what was intended,
when the words were inspired by the Holy Spirit. This word predestinate, literally means, to arrange ahead of time.
Going on to the next form of this word in Scripture,
which is predestinated. Again, this word is only found 2 times, and both are in Ephesians:
- Ephesians 1:5 Having predestinated us unto the adoption
of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,
- Ephesians 1:11 In whom also we have obtained an inheritance,
being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will:
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This is exactly the same word in Greek as predestinate,
just a different tense. The first example is TO perfom this action, the second example is HAVE performed this action.
Predestination then, is a state of being, predestinated.
We have established then, who has performed
this action, and what it is. God performed the action, has placed us in this state of being, and what it is, is arranging
ahead of time.
Now we come to the place where the teachings
differ, considerably. To keep it simple, there are 2 extremes. The first extreme says, that God did the choosing, the deciding,
and the pre-planning, and man had no say in his predestination. The second extreme says, that God looked down the halls of
time, unto each and every human being from day 1 until the final day of time, and knowing in advance, which people would eventually
choose to serve Him, of their own free will, those people He predestinated for salvation.
So which one is accurate or, is either of them
accurate?
The most commonly used verses to debate this
issue, are these 2:
- 1 Peter 1:2 Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the
Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you,
and peace, be multiplied.
- Romans 8:29 For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate
to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.
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The key word in both of thoses verses, is the word foreknow, and the variant foreknowledge. Using the same basic
principle of looking up the original language, and envisioning both of these verses as multiple choice questions, this is
what we find:
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1. Foreknow: Greek proginosko (Strongs 4267)
Combined word from the words pro (before) and ginosko (to
know) 1) to have knowledge before hand
2) to foreknow
2a) of those whom God elected to salvation
3) to predestinate
2. Foreknowledge: Greek prognosis (Strongs 4268)
forethought, pre-arrangement |
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Elect according to the ___________ of God the Father, through
sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus
- forethought
- pre-arrangement
For whom he did __________, he also did predestinate to
be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.
- know before hand
- know of
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Its clear what foreknow, and foreknowledge means.
Knowing before hand. Where the controversy comes in, is in this question:
"Did He predestinate you to be saved because
He knew you before hand, and knew youd choose Him or did you choose Him BECAUSE He knew you before hand, and predestinated
you to do that?"
In this question, one is placing the final decision
on salvation on God, and the other is placing it on man. Surely the Bible addresses the answer to this very important question?
YES, it most certainly does. In these verses
here:
- John 6:45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be
all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.
- John 6:65 And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that
no man can come
unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father.
- John 10:27 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they
follow me:
- Ephesians 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith;
and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
- Philippians 1:29 For unto you it is given in the behalf
of Christ, not only to believe on him, but also to suffer for his sake;
- Titus 3:3 For we ourselves also were sometimes foolish, disobedient,
deceived, serving divers lusts and pleasures, living in malice and envy, hateful, and hating one another. 4 But after
that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared, 5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but
according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; 6 Which he shed
on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour; 7 That being justified by his grace, we should be made heirs according
to the hope of eternal life.
- 1 John 4:19 We love him, because he first loved
us.
- James 1:16 Do not err, my beloved brethren. 17 Every good
gift and every perfect gift is from above, and cometh down from the Father of lights, with whom is no variableness, neither
shadow of turning. 18 Of his own will begat he us with the word of truth, that we should be a kind of firstfruits of
his creatures.
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All of these are excellent verses that show
us what the meaning of God knowing us, really means. My personal favorite would be the passage in James. Do you see
how he starts his instruction? With a plea, "do not err my beloved brethren". James goes on to describe in detail,
where good and perfect gifts come from. Further still, he declares that by God's will, and none other, He brought us to life
with the truth of the gospel. Do you notice what's missing from this passage in James, and all the other passages that
talk about God opening our spiritually dead eyes? Never once will we find anything about how God TRIED to open our eyes,
but we chose to remain blind, and our will won out, over His. In every verse, every passage, where we read about those
ordained to receive salvation, never once does it say, we were ordained because God knew we would choose Him.
God knows that no man WILL choose Him, of his
own accord. His word tells us that the carnal (natural, unsaved) mind is enmity (hates) against God. (Romans 8:7). A man who
hates something, will never seek after it, and the Bible also tells us that exact thing. (Isaiah 9:13, Isaiah 31:1, Hosea
7:10, Romans 3:11).
In Summary
Predestination is a state of being. Being predestinated
by God to receive salvation, happens by the counsel of His own will, not mans. Mans will is to run away from God, not toward
Him. Therefore, He did predestinate those of His choosing, to repent, believe, and seek His face.
Predestination is simply, the manifestation
of His grace, on unworthy sinners, to believe, and be set free from the bondage of sin and death.
It should not be so stunning that He would choose
to predestinate some, and not others, for this truly amazing grace. It should be the most humbling of all facts, that He chose
to predestinate ANY, instead of allowing just condemnation, for all.
I hope this has helped shed some light on this
most controversial topic. God bless your understanding, as you consider what you've read here.
© Carla Rolfe 2001
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